Certified Fraud Examiner Certified Official Practice Test CFE - Dec-2025 [Q29-Q54]

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Certified Fraud Examiner Certified Official Practice Test CFE - Dec-2025

Ace ACFE CFE Certification with Actual Questions Dec 05, 2025 Updated


To be eligible for the CFE certification, candidates must have a minimum of a bachelor's degree and two years of professional experience in a field related to fraud. Alternatively, candidates with an associate's degree and five years of professional experience or those without a degree but with seven years of professional experience can also apply for the certification. In addition, candidates must pass the CFE certification exam and adhere to the ACFE's code of ethics.

 

NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following is NOT the example of bribery prevention policies?

  • A. Resource diversions
  • B. Reporting gifts
  • C. Discounts
  • D. Business meetings

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Fraud Prevention and Deterrence


NEW QUESTION # 30
Which of the following is not the skimming scheme?

  • A. Understand sales and receivables
  • B. Unrecorded sales
  • C. Fraud & Cost
  • D. Theft of checks through the mail

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 31
Maintain the presence of a manager or supervisor near the area of the cash register as a deterrent to theft is a prevention for:

  • A. Register disbursement scheme
  • B. Larceny scheme
  • C. Asset misappropriation scheme
  • D. Fraudulent statement scheme

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 32
Theft of incoming checks usually occurs when ________ is (are) in charge of opening the mail and recording the receipt of payments.

  • A. Single employee
  • B. None of the above
  • C. Two employees
  • D. More than two employees

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 33
The heart of book keeping system is the ___________.

  • A. Journal
  • B. Checkbook
  • C. Asset
  • D. Liability

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 34
One reason employees might be hesitant to use PO boxes in shell company schemes is that some businesses are specially vary of sending checks to vendors that have street addresses only.

  • A. False
  • B. True

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following search is used for unusually high incidence of returns and allowances scheme?

  • A. Disposals of allowances than reorders
  • B. Returns and allowances
  • C. None of the above
  • D. Allowances by vendors

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Investigation


NEW QUESTION # 36
"Anticipate possible losses and omit potential profits", this results in:

  • A. Symmetrical accounting
  • B. Playing accounting
  • C. Bearing accounting
  • D. Asymmetrical accounting

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 37
Skimming is:

  • A. The removal of cash from a victim entity after its entry in an accounting system.
  • B. None of above
  • C. The addition of cash from a victim entity prior to its entry in an accounting system.
  • D. The removal of cash from a victim entity prior to its entry in an accounting system.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 38
The principal way to detect omitted credits from books of account is through:

  • A. Trend analysis
  • B. Forced Balance
  • C. None of all
  • D. Expense account

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 39
A fabricated name and the post office box that an employee uses to collect disbursements from false billings is called:

  • A. Shell company
  • B. Perpetrator check
  • C. Accomplice residence
  • D. Cash generator

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 40
A voucher is:

  • A. a mammogram that includes the purchase order that was send to the purchaser, the purchaser invoice listing the benefits and quantity of items purchased, and the internal receiving reports that verify the purchased items have been sold.
  • B. a figure that includes the sale order that was send to the dealer, the vendor invoice listing the cost and quantity of items sold, and the internal receiving reports that verify the purchased items have been delivered.
  • C. a report that includes the purchase order that was send to the vendor, the vendor invoice listing the quality and quantity of items purchased, and the external receiving reports that verify the items have been sold.
  • D. a file that includes the purchase order that was send to the vendor, the vendor invoice listing the cost and quantity of items purchased, and the internal receiving reports that verify the purchased items have been delivered.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 41
SIMULATION
The _______________ cost method of pricing would carry an asset's value on the financial statements as what it would currently cost, considering inflation.

Answer:

Explanation:
Price-level adjusted historical cost


NEW QUESTION # 42
The difference between assets and liabilities is called:

  • A. Equity
  • B. Income statement
  • C. Revenue
  • D. Expense

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes
Explanation


NEW QUESTION # 43
In physical tampering prevention technique, hidden images can be seen only when the check is held at an angle through:

  • A. Watermark backers
  • B. Holographic safety inks
  • C. High-resolution sprays
  • D. Chrome coloring

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 44
__________ may be defined as the offering, giving, receiving or soliciting anything of value to influence an official act.

  • A. Corruption
  • B. Bribery
  • C. Lacking approval authority
  • D. Diverting business to vendors

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 45
________, one of the Fraud synonyms implies that deceiving so thoroughly as to obscure the truth:

  • A. Mislead
  • B. Deceive
  • C. Beguile
  • D. Delude

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 46
The excess credits (or debits) on the income statement are used to decrease (or increase) the equity account.

  • A. False
  • B. True

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following can constitute a bribe, even if the illicit payment is never actually made?

  • A. kickback payment
  • B. Corruption in payment
  • C. Overbilling in payment
  • D. Offering a payment

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 48
The seller's price to the buyer is not fixed or determinable when:

  • A. A service or membership fee is not subject predictable cancellation during the contract period.
  • B. The transaction includes an option to exchange the product for others.
  • C. Payment terms are not extended for a substantial period.
  • D. When the price is not contingent on some future events

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes


NEW QUESTION # 49
__________ may be defined as the offering, giving, receiving or soliciting anything of value to influence an official act.

  • A. Corruption
  • B. Bribery
  • C. Lacking approval authority
  • D. Diverting business to vendors

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 50
Which counts sometimes can give rise to inventory theft detection?

  • A. Perpetual inventory counts
  • B. None of the above
  • C. Physical inventory counts
  • D. Concealment inventory counts

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Investigation


NEW QUESTION # 51
Once the expense account is closed, it becomes a historical item and probably will never be reviewed again.

  • A. False
  • B. True

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes


NEW QUESTION # 52
Revenue is recognized when it is:

  • A. Realized and Earned
  • B. Realized and Evidenced
  • C. All of the above
  • D. Fictitious and Earned

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes


NEW QUESTION # 53
Every bribe is a two-sided transaction, in which where a vendor bribes a purchaser, there is someone on the vendor's side of the transaction who is not making an illicit payment.

  • A. False
  • B. True

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 54
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ACFE CFE certification exam covers a wide range of topics related to fraud detection and prevention, including financial transactions and fraud schemes, legal issues, investigation techniques, and management of fraud risk. CFE exam consists of four sections, each of which covers a specific area of fraud examination. These sections are: Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes, Law, Investigation, and Fraud Prevention and Deterrence. CFE exam is computer-based and consists of multiple-choice questions that test the candidate's knowledge, skills, and abilities in each of the four areas.

 

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