Latest Success Metrics For Actual SY0-601 Exam 2023 Realistic Dumps [Q22-Q37]

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Latest Success Metrics For Actual SY0-601 Exam 2023 Realistic Dumps

Updated SY0-601 Dumps Questions For CompTIA Exam

NEW QUESTION # 22
During a recent cybersecurity audit, the auditors pointed out various types of vulnerabilities in the production are a. The production area hardware runs applications that are critical to production Which of the following describes what the company should do first to lower the risk to the Production the hardware.

  • A. Add a banner page to the hardware.
  • B. Back up the hardware.
  • C. Install an antivirus solution.
  • D. Apply patches.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Applying patches is the first step to lower the risk to the production hardware, as patches are updates that fix vulnerabilities or bugs in the software or firmware. Patches can prevent attackers from exploiting known vulnerabilities and compromising the production hardware. Applying patches should be done regularly and in a timely manner, following a patch management policy and process. Reference: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.3: Summarize secure application development, deployment, and automation concepts 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of embedded and specialized systems security 3 https://www.comptia.org/blog/patch-management-best-practices


NEW QUESTION # 23
A security analyst is reviewing the following output from a system:

Which of the following is MOST likely being observed?

  • A. Denial of service
  • B. ARP palsoning
  • C. DNS poisoning
  • D. Man in the middle

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 24
A user downloaded an extension for a browser, and the uses device later became infected. The analyst who is investigating the incident saw various logs where the attacker was hiding activity by deleting data The following was observed running:

Which of the following is the malware using to execute the attack?

  • A. Macros
  • B. Python
  • C. Bash
  • D. PowerShell

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 25
A web server has been compromised due to a ransomware attack. Further investigation reveals the ransomware has been in the server for the past 72 hours. The systems administrator needs to get the services back up as soon as possible. Which of the following should the administrator use to restore services to a secure state?

  • A. The last full backup that was conducted seven days ago
  • B. The last incremental backup that was conducted 72 hours ago Most Voted
  • C. The last known-good configuration Most Voted
  • D. The baseline OS configuration

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Ransomware will most likely render the web server unusable and must be isolated for forensic investigation.
This will leave the only option to start a new web server from scratch and restore the last full backup, plus any differential or incremental backups which are sure to be clean from ransomware (if available).


NEW QUESTION # 26
A user reports trouble using a corporate laptop. The laptop freezes and responds slowly when writing documents and the mouse pointer occasional disappears.
The task list shows the following results

Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?

  • A. PUP
  • B. Spyware
  • C. Keylogger
  • D. RAT

Answer: B

Explanation:
Spyware is malicious software that can cause a computer to slow down or freeze. It can also cause the mouse pointer to disappear. The task list shows an application named "spyware.exe" running, indicating that spyware is likely the issue. Reference:
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 6.0: Given a scenario, analyze indicators of compromise and determine the type of malware.
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, pages 125-126


NEW QUESTION # 27
A smart switch has the ability to monitor electrical levels and shut off power to a building in the event of power surge or other fault situation. The switch was installed on a wired network in a hospital and is monitored by the facilities department via a cloud application. The security administrator isolated the switch on a separate VLAN and set up a patch routine. Which of the following steps should also be taken to harden the smart switch?

  • A. Set up an air gap for the switch.
  • B. Place the switch In a Faraday cage.
  • C. Change the default password for the switch.
  • D. Install a cable lock on the switch

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 28
A store receives reports that shoppers' credit card information is being stolen. Upon further analysis, those same shoppers also withdrew money from an ATM in that store.
The attackers are using the targeted shoppers' credit card information to make online purchases. Which of the following attacks is the MOST probable cause?

  • A. RFID cloning
  • B. Shoulder surfing
  • C. Identity theft
  • D. Card skimming

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The attackers are using card skimming to steal shoppers' credit card information, which they use to make online purchases. References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601, Chapter 5


NEW QUESTION # 29
A company would like to provide flexibility for employees on device preference. However, the company is concerned about supporting too many different types of hardware. Which of the following deployment models will provide the needed flexibility with the GREATEST amount of control and security over company data and infrastructure?

  • A. CYOD
  • B. BYOD
  • C. COPE
  • D. VDI

Answer: A

Explanation:
Choose Your Own Device (CYOD) is a deployment model that allows employees to select from a predefined list of devices. It provides employees with flexibility in device preference while allowing the company to maintain control and security over company data and infrastructure. CYOD deployment model provides a compromise between the strict control provided by Corporate-Owned, Personally Enabled (COPE) deployment model and the flexibility provided by Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) deployment model. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Securing Application, Data, and Host Security, 6.5 Implement Mobile Device Management, pp. 334-335


NEW QUESTION # 30
A security analyst is evaluating the risks of authorizing multiple security solutions to collect data from the company's cloud environment Which of the following is an immediate consequence of these integrations?

  • A. Loss of the vendor's interoperability support
  • B. Non-compliance with data sovereignty rules
  • C. Increase in the attack surface
  • D. Mandatory deployment of a SIEM solution

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 31
As part of a company's ongoing SOC maturation process, the company wants to implement a method to share cyberthreat intelligence data with outside security partners. Which of the following will the company MOST likely implement?

  • A. TLP
  • B. TTP
  • C. TAXII
  • D. STIX

Answer: C

Explanation:
Trusted Automated Exchange of Intelligence Information (TAXII) is a standard protocol that enables the sharing of cyber threat intelligence between organizations. It allows organizations to automate the exchange of information in a secure and timely manner. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 3.6 Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts. Study Guide: Chapter 4, page 167.


NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following is constantly scanned by internet bots and has the highest risk of attack in the case of the default configurations?

  • A. Raspberry Pi
  • B. Wearable sensors
  • C. Surveillance systems
  • D. Real-time operating systems

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Surveillance systems are constantly scanned by internet bots and have the highest risk of attack in the case of the default configurations because they are often connected to the internet and use weak or default passwords that can be easily guessed or cracked by malicious bots. Internet bots are software applications that run automated tasks over the internet, usually with the intent to imitate human activity or exploit vulnerabilities.
Some bots are used for legitimate purposes, such as web crawling or indexing, but others are used for malicious purposes, such as spamming, phishing, denial-of-service attacks, or credential stuffing. Security misconfigurations are one of the most common gaps that criminal hackers look to exploit. Therefore, it is important to secure the configuration of surveillance systems by changing the default passwords, updating the firmware, disabling unnecessary services, and enabling encryption and authentication.
https://www.cctvcameraworld.com/setup-ip-camera-system-on-network/


NEW QUESTION # 33
Several attempts have been made lo pick the door lock of a secure facility As a result the security engineer has been assigned to implement a stronger preventative access control Which of the following would BEST complete the engineer's assignment?

  • A. Surrounding the property with fencing and gates
  • B. Replacing the traditional key with an RFID key
  • C. Setting motion-sensing lights to illuminate the door on activity
  • D. Installing and monitoring a camera facing the door

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 34
Which ol the following is required in order (or an IDS and a WAF to be effective on HTTPS traffic?

  • A. Hashing
  • B. DNS sinkhole
  • C. TLS inspection
  • D. Data masking

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a protocol that is used to encrypt data sent over HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure). In order for an intrusion detection system (IDS) and a web application firewall (WAF) to be effective on HTTPS traffic, they must be able to inspect the encrypted traffic. TLS inspection allows the IDS and WAF to decrypt and inspect the traffic, allowing them to detect any malicious activity. References: [1] CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601 [1], Sixth Edition, Chapter 11, "Network Security Monitoring" [2] CompTIA Security+ Get Certified Get Ahead: SY0-501 Study Guide, Chapter 7, "Intrusion Detection and Prevention"


NEW QUESTION # 35
A Security engineer needs to implement an MDM solution that complies with the corporate mobile device policy. The policy states that in order for mobile users to access corporate resources on their devices, the following requirements must be met:
Mobile device OSs must be patched up to the latest release.
A screen lock must be enabled (passcode or biometric).
Corporate data must be removed if the device is reported lost or stolen.
Which of the following controls should the security engineer configure? (Select two).

  • A. Storage segmentation
  • B. Remote wipe
  • C. Full device encryption
  • D. Disable firmware over-the-air
  • E. Posture checking
  • F. Geofencing

Answer: B,E

Explanation:
Posture checking and remote wipe are two controls that the security engineer should configure to comply with the corporate mobile device policy. Posture checking is a process that verifies if a mobile device meets certain security requirements before allowing it to access corporate resources. For example, posture checking can check if the device OS is patched up to the latest release and if a screen lock is enabled. Remote wipe is a feature that allows the administrator to erase all data from a mobile device remotely, in case it is lost or stolen. This can prevent unauthorized access to corporate data on the device.


NEW QUESTION # 36
A security analyst is investigating some users who are being redirected to a fake website that resembles www.comptia.org. The following output was found on the naming server of the organization:

Which of the following attacks has taken place?

  • A. Domain reputation
  • B. DNS poisoning
  • C. Domain hijacking
  • D. Disassociation

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 37
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